Quote Originally Posted by xerxe View Post
We've all seen that. What's your proof that it's the result of overpopulation..?
The numbers have already been run before: https://cis.org/Report/Immigration-and-American-Worker

Total GDP of course rises from immigration—but nearly all the gains go to firms (i.e., the wealthy) or to the immigrants themselves:


Everyone else loses. Little wonder that income inequality has been surging with massive gains going to the top 0.1% and above.

If population growth puts this much downward pressure on wages, why did purchasing power improve between 1900 and 1964?
Probably because the US was still something of a developing country, and we weren't letting in crazy amounts of people like now:


Quite the inflection point circa ~1970. Maybe a little too coincidental with post-1964 wage stagnation.