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Thread: Wealth Distribution in the USA

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    ._. Aiss's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by hkkmr View Post
    The problem that exists is that the top 20% of the bottom 80% is doing horrible, and is making a wage below the median.
    Top 20% of the bottom 80% would be 16% of the whole population. I imagine you're referring to second 20%, which would be 25% of the bottom 80%?

    Please explain to me how second 20% can make a wage above median when median is defined as the value that is higher than 50% of the sample and lower than 50% of the sample.

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    Glorious Member mu4's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Aiss View Post
    Top 20% of the bottom 80% would be 16% of the whole population. I imagine you're referring to second 20%, which would be 25% of the bottom 80%?

    Please explain to me how second 20% can make a wage above median when median is defined as the value that is higher than 50% of the sample and lower than 50% of the sample.
    The chart is broken into 5 20% blocks, I'm indicating the 20% block at the top of the 80% block. Thus the 2nd 20%block.

    Actually I read the chart wrong, the % amount on the chart indicates change in share of income. I'm not sure what that actually means statistically, suffice it to say, the bottom 80% is hurting vs the top 20%. I made some changes to the original post to reflect my mistake.

    This actually makes the chart even more dire because everyone below the top 20% is getting their asses kicked.

    This seems related to this report as well which indicates that post-tax income for the 2nd 20% block has only increased 35% since 1979 while the top 20% has gained 95%. This means that for everyone except the top 20% have not maintained against inflation since 1979.

    http://www.cbpp.org/cms/?fa=view&id=3220

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