Quote Originally Posted by flower
Example: INTj's are socially disadvantaged - true or false

True: socionoics points this out and it's fairly visible if you have ever met many INTj's, if it's true, its true, lets not pretend its not true to to make the world a more just place.
The question is must this needs be? Is it /possible/ that the context in which persons being typified have been in is such that the behaviors observed are aggregates of variables of merely secondary relation to the persons in question? /Can/ intjs be non-socially hanicapped or even advantaged? If so, what makes them so? What if such forces influenced all intjs?