Originally Posted by
kouhai
I've read the article you linked and it still doesn't address what I asked about. How is it possible that an "ESFP" in MBTI is the same thing as an "ESFp" in Socionics when both systems use those terms to refer to different things ? In MBTI an "ESFP" has their dominant function as "Se", and "Se" in MBTI (And more consistently with Jung's original definition btw) is defined as the function that deals with objective, reality-based experiences and sensations. It is concerned with what can be seen, felt, and perceived by anyone in the moment. An ESFp in Socionics has the Information Element "Se" as their base/program function, and "Se" in Socionics is defined as being about force, willpower, the acquisition of territory and material possessions and the perception of the immediate physical qualities of objects. Different things.
BTW, I'm using the term MBTI not to refer to the dichotomies but to function-based typology that evolved independently from Socionics. So, not the official Myers-Briggs, but more like the stuff you'd find on r/mbti.