Post your MBTI type and Socionics type

[Not A Communist Shill]

The results of the poll show that the correlation is evident.

Not really..11 of the 20 people (out of the total of 28) who said that they were the same on the Thinking/Feeling axis could have said they were different on one of the other three dichotomies...also, the difference/same subtotals don't add up to 28...which means in addition there are some people who are unsure if they score the same on a particular dichotomy.

[Expat]

The poll asks about correspondences in 4 dichotomies.

~75% of posters reported correspondence in at least one of those 4.

As far as the results go, statistically, there is no correlation whatsoever.

[Jarno]

~75% of posters reported correspondence in at least one of those 4.

As far as the results go, statistically, there is no correlation whatsoever.

Your assumption in incorrect. ~50% means no correlation.

There are multiple options possible.

So in this actual case it's even possible that ~75% of the posters reported correspondence to all of the 4 dichotomies.

I wonder what numbers you would like to see to call it a correlation.

[717495]

Plus, what about the people who are basing their typing off previous experiences with MBTI, who actually aren't typing themselves accurately?

Look at this:

Two of my friends:

INTJ : ESTp
INxP : ESTj

Yep.

That's what I'd like to call socionics at the end of the day.

[Not A Communist Shill]

well you're probably not going to infer a 1:1 correlation. but if there was "no correlation", wouldn't one see convergences around (or slightly below because of nonresponses) 50%? the poll accounts for both "correspondence" and "noncorrespondence".

If there was no correlation whatsoever, then you'd expect 100% of people to vote "difference" for each dichotomy, and 0% to vote "same".

If everybody identified in both systems with three out of four dichotomies, you'd get on average 75% of people voting "same" for each dichotomy, while having no apparent 1:1 correlation between the two systems (i.e. people having the 'same' type in both).

The average for people voting "same" is about 77%...and this does not take into account people who voted for neither "difference" or "same" for a particular dichotomy.

[Trevor]

If there was no correlation whatsoever, then you'd expect 100% of people to vote "difference" for each dichotomy, and 0% to vote "same".

That would be negative correlation. That is different from "no correlation".

[Not A Communist Shill]

That would be negative correlation. That is different from "no correlation".

I don't believe you can have negative correlation in this case. You could if you were comparing two linear variables such as weight and height, but not if you were asking if there was a correlation between two systems (a 'yes' or 'no' answer)...in which case, it would go from a correlation of 0 to 100%.

[Trevor]

I don't believe you can have negative correlation in this case. You could if you were comparing two linear variables such as weight and height, but not if you were asking if there was a correlation between two systems...in which case, it would go from a correlation of 0 to 100%.

What you call CORRELATION inhere is actually CORRESPONDENCE.
So, 1:1 positive correlation => 100% correspondence.
1:1 negative correlation => 0% correspondence.
No correlation => 50% correspondence.

[Not A Communist Shill]

Oh I see. But if 50% of people said there was a 1:1 correlation between their socionics type and their MBTI type, and 50% said there wasn't, it wouldn't mean that there was no correlation whatsoever between the two systems, would it? INTJs and INTps share at least some similarities for example.

[Trevor]

Oh I see. But if 50% of people said there was a 1:1 correlation between their socionics type and their MBTI type, and 50% said there wasn't, it wouldn't mean that there was no correlation whatsoever between the two systems, would it? INTJs and INTps share at least some similarities for example.

If 50% of people said there was a 1:1 correlation between their socionics type and their MBTI type, and 50% said there wasn't, given that types are equally distributed(are they?), it would mean that there is a pretty strong correlation between the two systems. Why is that so? Well, we have 16 types, if equally distributed - than every type - 6.25% of socion. If there is no correlation between the two than one would expect for example that all MBTI ESTPs and other types would be approximatelly equally distributed along the socionics types(that meaninig 6.25% of MBTI ESTPs would be socionics ESTps, ILIs, IEIs etc.). But if 50% of ESTPs are SLEs, than, that's a good one correlation.

[The Exception]

I most commonly score as an INTJ in MBTI. Strongest on Introversion, moderate on N, slightly more T than F. J/P is the letter that varies the most and on occassion will score as a P.

In socionics, I'm an INTj or LII. Pretty strong on the first three, less sure about the last letter. My use of functions seems to match better with INTj than INTp and I relate more to alpha quadra.

[Not A Communist Shill]

So...if 21 people voted that they have the same Thinking/Feeling dichotomy...there are 11 votes for a difference in the I/E, I/S, and J/P dichotomies. In addition, because it is known that 28 people voted, it can be calculated how many votes were not used because people weren't sure if one of the dichotomies was the same or different. For the I/E, I/S, and J/P dichotomies, this is 6 votes.

This could mean that of the 21 people who voted that they have the same Thinking/Feeling dichotomy in both systems, 17 of them could be different in one other dichotomy, or be uncertain. 4/21 = 19%, or 14% of the people who took part.